You are viewing a single comment's thread. Return to all comments →
Isn't the explanation incorrect ?
Explanation Since, f(1) = 2 and f(2) = 1, f¯¹(1) = 2 and f¯¹(2) = 2. Hence, f is an involution.
From my understanding of involution, f¯¹(1) = f(f(1)) = f(2) = 1 ⇒ f¯¹(1) = 1
Seems like cookies are disabled on this browser, please enable them to open this website
Security Involution
You are viewing a single comment's thread. Return to all comments →
Isn't the explanation incorrect ?
From my understanding of involution, f¯¹(1) = f(f(1)) = f(2) = 1 ⇒ f¯¹(1) = 1