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Hi @EternalTime, it's an standard modulo operation :) You can refer this also: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modular_multiplicative_inverse
In short, if p is a prime and a and p are coprime, then according to fermat's theorem
a^(p-1) = 1 mod p a^(p-1) * a^(-1) = a^(-1) mod p a^(p-2) = a^(-1) mod p
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Down the Rabbit Hole
You are viewing a single comment's thread. Return to all comments →
Hi @EternalTime, it's an standard modulo operation :) You can refer this also: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modular_multiplicative_inverse
In short, if p is a prime and a and p are coprime, then according to fermat's theorem