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    Hi @EternalTime, it's an standard modulo operation :) You can refer this also: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modular_multiplicative_inverse

    In short, if p is a prime and a and p are coprime, then according to fermat's theorem

    a^(p-1)          = 1        mod p
    a^(p-1) * a^(-1) = a^(-1)   mod p
    a^(p-2)          = a^(-1)   mod p